Does a power which costs only 1 END need to pay a ½ advantage to become +0 END, or does the rounding rule allow a +¼ advantage to suffice? The rules seem to imply it has to be the former:
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The minimum END cost is still 1 END per Phase.
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Reducing the END cost of a power to 0 END is a +½ Power Advantage
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Christopher R Taylor
Does a power which costs only 1 END need to pay a ½ advantage to become +0 END, or does the rounding rule allow a +¼ advantage to suffice? The rules seem to imply it has to be the former:
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