The Man

Using the names as incantations is a splendid idea!

Lol, hey, I can be biased!

It rolls off the tongue!

I'm in at the $100 level. Here's to a great start!

Bruja Balam...I've said it several times and yes, it does roll off the tongue. If you want to combine a Spanish word with one from the Maya, Alma Balam (Balam Alma works too) is another option. Alma means soul or spirit in Spanish. This could represent several things. 1. If using the idea that she is a follower of the Jaguar Gods I mentioned in my previous post, the name, Balam, would connect her with them. 2. Alma would be a nod to the fact that all left of the sorceress was her soul. 3. Alma, being a Spanish word, reflects the Spanish-Mayan duality BoloOf Earth mentioned and that the two souls merged into possibly a new and unique identity (which curiously, is symbolic of what Mexico became-the merging of two cultures creating a new, unique, nation). I know, maybe that's a little too deep for what your looking for but I couldn't help myself. I tend to overthink things.

I would like to submit for your consideration, Sister Balam (or any of it's spelling variants). Balam is the Mayan word for jaguar. There is a group of Mayan deities known as the Jaguar Gods and each had its own sphere of influence, including black magic. Collectively, they are the protectors of the Mayan people/civilization. Sister Balam would be a mortal link to the Jaguar Gods and she draws her magic from them. Imagine her wrath when she realizes what has become of the Mayan civilization. What do you think?

This is amazing news and I can't wait for the Kickstarter to launch so I can contribute. Aaron Allston made a major impact on me with his material. Two of note was the Dungeons and Dragons Rules Cyclopedia (of which I still have my old beat up copy) and, of course, Strike Force. I loved Strike Force primarily for detailing his campaign and filling us in with what was going on with his group of players as the campaign developed. Being a primary GM for most games, I appreciated the advice and tools he shared for running an effective and dynamic world. I still use the blue book concept in the form of all the electronic conveniences we have at our disposal (software, campaign wikis, etc). I lost my old copy of Strike Force along with The Blood and Dr. McQuark (The Blood was Aaron Allston's contribution to that book but you already know that). On a lighter note, I always take pause when I see one of Michael's posts. My birth name is Susano (named after my father) so it takes me a moment to remember that Michael uses that profile name and not an accidental profile change on my part. Lol. Michael, thanks so much for your hard work. I appreciate the content you produce.

This may have been clarified somewhere else already but here goes; I've allowed a player to take the Absorption as a Defense option for his energy Absorption power. There is a disagreement as to how this option comes into effect. The player feels that the amount absorbed stays until the fade rate hits. In other words, a character who can absorb, let's say, 15 BODY from energy attacks per segment absorbs the full 15 BODY (in one segment). The 15 ED he gained from the Absorption as a Defense remains until the fade rate occurs. Using the same example, my opinion is that the 15 ED gained from the Absorption as a Defense advantage only applies for that segment and does not remain in effect for subsequent attacks. If his interpretation is correct, and using the example above, that means he can potentially accrue an additional 30 ED from absorption alone (assuming the maximum amount absorbed was not increased and the points gained from absorption does not add to his already bolstered ED). Will you please clarify this for us? Thank you in advance. The Man

I should know this but I'm having a hard time figuring it out. I think I'm over analyzing it. A superheroic campaign features a character who uses a mace in combat. He has a 25 Strength, a 5d6 Hand Attack (the mace), and the Weapons Combat martial arts with the Attack maneuver (which adds 2d6 to the weapon damage). Does the the character do 12d6 with his attack using the martial arts manuever or does the doubling rule come into effect somewhere here and limit the attack to 10d6? Thank you in advance.

Re: Hand Killing Attack/Hand Attack Lord Liadon, I thank you for sharing the document. This looks like something that may resolve some questions within our group. Pinecone: Less stressful perhaps but not less useful, it's all part of one big fraternity. I myself am a patrol dog through and through. I love the street, which I don't plan on leaving anytime soon, and I look forward to the challenges presented to me each day. Anyway, thank you for your input.

Re: Hand Killing Attack/Hand Attack OK, I think I see the jist of it. It makes sense that you would have to expend END for using your STR, even if the Hand Attack is bought with no END cost. Thank you everyone for your responses. Pinecone, what department do you work for?

Re: Hand Killing Attack/Hand Attack I forgot to add this to my last post. According to Pinecone's post, DCs (or dice) from martial arts maneuvers counts towards the doubling of the Hand Attack (or would that be STR)? If so, I was not aware of that.

Re: Hand Killing Attack/Hand Attack Well, I looked through the FAQ file and I could not find anything regarding how STR, NNDs, and the Hand Attack interact. I also am having difficulty locating any definitive ruling on applying martial arts to the Hand Attack. Maybe it is in one of the martial arts books? If anyone can point me in the right direction, I would appreciate it.

Re: Hand Killing Attack/Hand Attack I appreciate the responses. Thank you. 8d6 NND? OK, it seems I didn't add something properly.... So let us see if I have this right; My character has a 30 STR and has purchased a 6d6 Hand Attack with Area of Effect-One Hex (accurate, +1/2) and No END Cost (+1/2). I won't get into the power limitations. In the end, using this power at full strength will make this a 12d6 One Hex Accurate, No END attack (the 30 STR is equal to the unmodified active point cost of the Hand Attack of 30). Another character has a 30 STR and has purchased a 2d6 Hand Killing Attack with Armor Piercing (+1/2) and No END Cost (+1/2). Again, we won't worry about limitations. Using the Hand Killing Attack at full strength will make it a 3d6 Armor Piercing Killing Attack costing No END (?). One DC of the advantaged Hand Killing Attack is worth 10 active points (5 base active multiplied by the advantages for Armor Piercing +1/2 and No END Cost +1/2). Since it takes 10 active points to get one DC of the advantaged HKA, a 30 STR will provide three DCs or an additional 1d6 advantaged HKA. Thank all goodness I have Hero Designer to calculate this. The last character has a 20 STR, martial arts with Martial Strike (adds two DC's to his STR damage when attacking with the maneuver) as his only offensive attack in the set, and has purchased a 4d6 Hand Attack with a No Normal Defense advantage (+1). Once again, limitations are not a factor. Now at full strength, I thought the attack was 10d6 NND. The 20 STR is equal to the base active cost of the Hand Attack (20), allowing the character to apply the full 4d6 from his STR to the base 4d6 NND Hand Attack. The additional two dice comes from the Martial Strike Maneuver. If so, that would make the attack 10d6 NND (not 8d6 NND). Are these examples correct? If so, does anybody see anything wrong with them? I have a headache...........

I posted this question in the rules section and Mr. Long was kind enough to direct me here regarding this subject. I know how to add the damage class of my strength to an advantaged hand attack or advantaged hand killing attack. That is clearly explained on page 272 of FRED. What I dont know is why an advantaged hand killing attack is treated differently from an advantaged hand attack. Will you please explain this? Don't get me wrong, I play a superhero character with an advantaged hand attack (6d6 One Hex Area Effect, No END Cost, Hand Attack with a 30 STR) so I'm not complaining about the rules (and neither was my GM). When another character entered the campaign with a 4d6 NND Hand Attack, 20 STR, and martial arts (with martial strike as his only attack maneuver in the set), the GM started to question the rule (stating it was unbalancing). The player feels he is justified (by the rules) in having a 10d6 NND attack. Are we adding this incorrectly? Thank you in advance and if this is a redundant question, I apologize.

I'm hoping this is the proper forum to post this question. If not, please direct me to the proper venue. I know how to add the damage class of my strength to an advantaged hand attack or advantaged hand killing attack. That is clearly explained on page 272 of FRED. What I dont know is why an advantaged hand killing attack is treated differently from an advantaged hand attack. Will you please explain this? Don't get me wrong, I play a superhero character with an advantaged hand attack (6d6 One Hex Area Effect, No END Cost, Hand Attack with a 30 STR) so I'm not complaining about the rules (and neither was my GM). When another character entered the campaign with a 4d6 NND Hand Attack, 20 STR, and martial arts (with martial strike as his only attack maneuver in the set), the GM started to question the rule (stating it was unbalancing). The player feels he is justified (by the rules) in having a 10d6 NND attack. Are we adding this incorrectly? Thank you in advance and if this is a redundant question, I apologize.